ATD 1-LAW
Which of the following statements about bill of exchange and promissory note are not true?
Cheque crossing conveys that the underlying amount is to be paid to the banker and not over the counter. In ________, the cheque bears the name of the bank within two transverse parallel lines that are used to cross the cheque.
TRUE or FALSE: A person can become a holder in due course, before or after the maturity of the negotiable instrument, whereas, a person can become a holder, only before the maturity of the negotiable instrument.
A (a)________refers to the payee of the negotiable instrument, who is in possession of it and is entitled to receive or recover the amount due on the instrument from the parties thereto, whereas, a (b)___________ implies a person who obtains the instrument bonafide for consideration before maturity, without any knowledge of defect in the title of the person transferring the instrument.
In reference to bills of exchange, ________endorsement refers to the writing of the name of a person who holds a negotiable instrument on the back of the document without specifically designating to whom the paper is to be paid, which transfers the rights that the signer had in the instrument to the person who presents it for payment.
TRUE or FALSE: A drawee has no liability regarding any bill addressed to him for acceptance or payment until he accepts the bill by writing the word 'accepted' on the bill and signing his/her name below to complete the acceptance.
TRUE or FALSE: In Kenya,if a cheque is altered and the drawer later authorizes the alteration (usually by initialing it), the effect is that the drawer is bound by the cheque as altered, and other parties are protected by section 64 unless they, too, have assented to the alteration.
Mark drew a cheque for USD 4,400/= in favor of Michael, who fraudulently altered the amount to USD 440,000/=, and sold (negotiated) it to Thomas who negotiated it to Simon. Here, Simon can enforce it against:
Where alteration to a bill is material, it becomes______ void except as against the party who was privy to the alteration and except in the case of an alteration that is not apparent.
Sans recours (without recourse) means that:
TRUE or FALSE: In Kenya, if a negotiable instrument is dishonored (i.e., not paid when due), a holder for value can sue any person who signed the bill before it came into his possession
Bills of lading, Post Office orders, money orders, registered share certificates, IOUs and receipts, dock warrants, delivery orders, etc. are examples of:
Outline five(5) requirements of negotiability of a bill of exchange.
In relation to negotiable instruments, drawee in case of need refers to:
Highlight four(4) distinctions between a bill of exchange and a cheque.
Define negotiable instruments and provide three (3) examples.
Outline five(5) requirements for an acceptance of honor supra protest to be valid.
I reference to agency law,_________ agency refers to the relationship between the agent and the seller wherein the seller acts as the principal and the agent not only acts as the broker of the principal but at the same time he also undertakes the guarantee of the credit which is extended to the buyer.
In reference to agency law,__________authority occurs when the agent exceeds the scope of their express or apparent authority, but it can be implied by a third party that the agent has that authority.
If a client makes the agent sign a contract specifying what the agent can and cannot do, this is an example of __________authority.
The ___________ stipulates that when a contract is required by law to be in writing, the authority of an agent to enter into such a contract on behalf of the principal must also be in writing.
TRUE or FALSE: A principal might be estoppel from revoking an agent’s authority if the principal limited the agent’s authority but fails to inform third parties who deal with him/her of the agent’s limited authority.
TRUE or FALSE: Where an agent himself /herself has an interest in the subject-matter of the contract, the agent is personally liable to the extent of his/her interest in the subject-matter.
Outline five(5) circumstances under which an agent might become personally liable to third parties.
The concept of agency by ________arises where one person acts in such a way that the other believes that a third person is authorized to act on his behalf and enters into a transaction with the third person.
Define the following terms:
i. Fiduciary
ii. Agency by necessity
Moses entered into a contract with Elijah as her agent. Moses wants to know the duties of an agent to the principal. Outline four(4) duties of the agent(Elijah) to the principal( Moses).
Outline three(3) rules governing the agency by ratification.
An agency by ratification is also known as_________ agency.
TRUE or FALSE: Ratification renders the ratifier (the principal) bound to the contract as if he had expressly authorized the person to transact the business on his behalf.
An agency is created :
Highlight three(3) conditions that must be satisfied before the principle of contribution can be applied
Which of the following statements is/are true about insurable interest in life assurance?
TRUE or FALSE: One can purchase a life insurance policy without the existence of an insurable interest.
In insurance industry, an________ contract requires the highest standard of good faith during disclosure of all material facts that could influence the decision of the other party
__________refers to a document issued by an insurance company that provides proof of insurance coverage until a final insurance policy can be issued.
TRUE or FALSE: Life assurance pays out a tax-free sum to whomever you choose when you die, whereas Life insurance pays out a tax-free sum to whomever you choose if you die during the terms of the policy.
Life (i)_______is designed to cover the policyholder for a specific term, while life (ii)______usually covers the policyholder for their entire life.
________arises where the same party is insured with two or more insurers in respect of the same interest on the same subject matter against the same risk and for the same period of time.
A creditor has an insurable interest in the life of a:
TRUE or FALSE: A spouse who relies on their partner for finances has an insurable interest in the life of the partner.
Outline eight (8)types of risks that are insurable.
An insurable interest can be defined as:
Insurance policies have five main parties: The declaration page, Definitions, Insuring agreements, Exclusions & limitations, and Conditions. Outline the contents covered under the declaration page.
TRUE or FALSE: The principle of contribution only applies to those insurance contracts which are contracts of indemnity.
Under the principle of _______ ,the total payment for actual loss is proportionally divided among all insurance companies.
The insurance principle of subrogation:
The ______ is the Government agency established under the Insurance Act, Cap.487 with a mandate to regulate, supervise and develop insurance sector in Kenya.
Elija, a shareholder of Noah Limited lost his share certificate. He applied for a duplicate one and the company agreed, but on the condition that Elija compensate for the loss or damage to the company if a third person brings the original certificate. This is an example of :
Which of the following statements about the contract of guarantee and a contract of indemnity is/are not true?
TRUE or FALSE: An insurance contract is an example of a guarantee.
Outline eight(8) rights that a guarantor has against a creditor.
TRUE or FALSE: A continuing guarantee applies to a series of separable, distinct transactions. Therefore, a guarantee given for an entire consideration can be termed as a continuing guarantee.
An (i)______guarantee refers to a guarantee that is given in respect of a single debt or specific transaction and is to come to an end when the guaranteed debt is paid or the promise is duly performed, whereas a guarantee which extends to a series of transactions is called an (ii)__________guarantee.
Hassan advanced a loan of USD 50,000 to Halima. Juma, Halima's boss promised that in case Halima failed to repay the loan, he would repay the same. In this case of a contract of guarantee, Hassan is the (i)______, Halima is the (ii) _______, and Juma is the (iii). _______.
Outline eight(8) characteristics of a contract of guarantee.
Which of the following is not a party to a contract of guarantee?
_______ refers to a contract to perform the promise or discharge the liability of the defaulting party in case he fails to fulfill his promise.
Indemnity can be defined as:
Tabora Limited purchased a tile manufacturing machine on hire purchase from Diamond Limited on January 1, 2020, paying USD 200,000 immediately and agreeing to pay four annual installments of USD 100,000 each on December 31, every year. The cash price of the machine is USD 350,000, and the vendors charge interest @ 5% per annum. Calculate the following:
i. Hire purchase price.
ii. Total interest paid.
In reference to hire purchase agreements, which of the following statements is/are not true?
__________refers to temporary postponement of the payment of an outstanding bill or debt, usually involving repayment by installments.
TRUE or FALSE: In a conditional sale agreement, the buyer gives you the option to own the item at the end of the agreement, whereas, in a hire purchase agreement, the buyer automatically owns the item once the finance has been repaid in full.
In reference to contracts, (i) ______ bailment is a type of bailment whereby the bailor transfers possession of property to the bailee on the basis that no compensation is to be paid, whereas under a (ii)______ bailment, the bailer does something for bailee to get something in return and after the accomplishment of the purpose, the bailee will pay him back and will also return his goods too.
TRUE or FALSE: A bailor has a duty to compensate the bailee for breach of warranty.
Which of the following is not a duty of a bailee ?
TRUE or FALSE: In a hire purchase, the ownership of the goods is passed to the purchaser as soon as the credit sale agreement is made, even if the purchaser has not made any payment yet, whereas in a credit sale, the ownership of the goods is not passed until the hirer has fully paid the price as agreed upon in the hire purchase agreement.
The following are the obligations of the hirer in a hire purchase agreement. Which is not true?
In reference to the hire purchase agreement,(i)________refers to a requirement or event that should be performed before the completion of another action, whereas a (ii)__________is an assurance given by the seller to the buyer about the state of the product, that the prescribed facts are genuine.
Highlight six(6) implied terms in every hire purchase agreement.
Which of the following statements about the hire purchase agreement is/are not true?
TRUE or FALSE: When the hirer is given time to exercise the option to purchase the goods within a stated period and he does not exercise the option within the said period, the agreement comes ends.
Outline three(3) ways in which a hirer in a hire purchase contract might terminate a hire purchase agreement under CAP.507.
1he deal in which one party can use the asset of the other party for the payment of equal monthly installments is known as (i)__________, whereas an agreement where one party buys the asset and allows the other party to use it by paying consideration over a specified period is known (ii)_________.
Ex-works contracts can be defined as:
Highlight three(3) cases under which transit ends according to the Sale of Goods Law.
________refer to a stipulation collateral to the main purpose of the contract and the breach of which gives rise to a right to claim for damages, but not to a right to reject goods and treat the contract as repudiated
TRUE or FALSE: In reference to a lien as a right of an unpaid seller, the lien is exercisable where the goods have been sold on credit but the terms of credit have expired.
________refers to goods whose existence is dependent on the future uncertain event/ contingent event.
Highlight three(3) rules for ascertaining the intention of the parties as to the time at which the property in the goods is to pass to the buyer.
Outline three(3) conditions where a contract of sale of goods is/are void under sale of goods Act.
With reference to the sale of goods contract, highlight six(6) differences between a sale and an agreement to sell.
Under _________ contracts, the seller has to deliver the goods to the buyer at the port of destination, but the property in the goods does not pass until actual delivery, and the goods are at the seller's risk during the voyage
TRUE or FALSE: Where there is a contract for the sale of unascertained goods, no property in the goods is transferred to the buyer unless and until the goods are ascertained.
Which of the following statements is not true about sale of goods by auction?
TRUE or FALSE: In an auction, if the reserve price is not met, the seller can sell the item to the highest bidder.
Highlight the remedies for an unpaid seller when goods are in the seller’s possession and when goods have been delivered
Fahari sold some goods to Salome for USD 20,000 and received a cheque. On presentation, the cheque was dishonored by the bank. Salome is an:
In a sale of goods, “quid pro quo” describes:
Contract of sale of goods can be defined as:
In contract law,_______ means there has been a meeting of the minds of all parties involved and everyone involved has accepted the offered contractual obligations of each party.
(i) ________privity can be brought up if benefits in a contract are given to another party that is not a party to the contract, whereas,(ii) ________privity may be raised when another contract is made arising from one of the parties to another contract.
TRUE or FALSE: Any contract with privity but without consideration is valid.
TRUE or FALSE: The principle of privity of contract helps to protect third parties to a contract from lawsuits arising from that contract.
The doctrine of _______of contract prevents a person who is not a party to a contract from enforcing a term of that contract, even where the contract was made for the purpose of conferring a benefit on the third party.
What are the three(3) things that are required for a consideration to uphold validity?
TRUE or FALSE: Without consideration, a promise does not have any legal obligations.
The phrase (i) .______ means let the buyer beware, whereas(ii). ________ means seller beware.
Any legal interest in the premises that is not terminable at the will of the landlord or at the time the tenant is entitled to take possession is referred to as:
A contract is one in which the parties have performed their duties under the contract is referred to as (i)_________, whereas a contract is one in which the parties have not yet performed their obligations under the agreement is referred to as (ii)_______.
Highlight six(6) differences between conditions and warranties.
TRUE or FALSE: A leasing agreement is an example of an implied contract, whereas a sale by fall of the hammer in an auction is a good example of an express contract.
An (i)______contract refers to a contract where the proposal and acceptance, leading to the contract, is expressed non-verbally ( i.e. through other means), whereas an (ii)________ contract is one in which the proposal and acceptance, that results in an agreement, enforceable by law, is expressed verbally.
TRUE or FALSE: A promise that has been made as a result of past consideration cannot be enforced in a court of law. However, a promise to pay a debt that was eliminated by bankruptcy is enforceable.
Highlight eight(8) circumstances that might result in a contract being frustrated.
A contract is (i)______when all of the elements essential to forming a legal contract are present, whereas (ii) ________contract can be enforced in a court of law.
TRUE or FALSE: A landlord forcing a tenant to sign a contract forbidding medically necessary companion animals such as seeing eye dog is an example of an unenforceable contract (deemed centrally to public policy).
(i)______ is an untrue defamatory statement that is made in writing, whereas,(ii) ______ is an untrue defamatory statement that is spoken orally.
The_________Act(Cap.34) defines the liability of an occupier of premises for injury to persons or damage caused to goods and resulting from actions or omissions of the occupier in respect of the occupied property.
TRUE or FALSE: The maxim of ''volenti non-fit injuria ''will not apply when the act relied upon is done because of the psychological condition that the defendant’s breach of duty had induced.
________ occurs when a person uses or alters a piece of personal property belonging to someone else without the owner's consent.
Which of the following are not all examples of an intentional tort?
The ________rule holds that ,where there has been an escape of a dangerous thing in the course of a non-natural use of land, the occupier of that land is liable for the damage to another caused as a result of the escape, irrespective of fault.
TRUE or FALSE: A person employing an independent contractor might be held liable for the contractor’s torts where the work to be done is statutory in nature.
TRUE or FALSE: If an employee takes a defamatory statement written on a note in an employee's file and shows it to people around the office, the courts may not compensate her/him for the defaming statements as the publication was entirely her/his own doing.
TRUE or FALSE: Libel and slander are forms of defamation.
As a victim of negligence, Luka has been advised that he must prove any wrong caused by the negligent behavior or a failure to practice due diligence. Because the duty of care is not executed correctly, with examples, highlight the essentials that Luka must prove.
A home care nurse not providing a patient with food or water for several days is an example of _________negligence.
Mercy’s neighbor, Juma, constantly plays loud music in his house throughout the night. The noise has been interfering with her sleep, but despite asking him to lower the volume. Uma has refused. Mercy wants to sue under the theory of private nuisance. As the plaintiff, outline three (3) issues that Mercy must proof.
The tort of private nuisance :
In the law of tort, one of the defenses available in defamation is privilege. Which of the following is not an example of absolute privilege defense?
TRUE or FALSE: An absolute privilege protects the speaker even if the speech is false and malicious, whereas a qualified privilege is no protection against actual malice.
What are the 4D’s of medical malpractice?
Malia was attacked by Suleiman and believing she was in imminent danger, used reasonable force to defend herself. In the process, she broke Suleman's arm and Suleiman sued her. What type of general defense can Malia apply?
Mateso went shopping at Maneno supermarket. However, due to the slippery floor at the supermarket, she slipped and fell, injuring her limbs. Mateso is aggrieved and seeks compensation from Maneno supermarket.
Mateso believes the supermarket was negligent and should have put a notice warning its customers about the slippery floor. She also believes she can be relieved by the doctrine of res ipsa liquitur, which holds that:
In reference to general defense in tort, volenti non-fit injuria holds that :
Highlight ten(10) differences between tort and contract.
Tort law is the branch of the law that deals with civil suits, with the exception of disputes involving :
A document that outlines in detail the rights and responsibilities of all parties to a business operation is known as :
Which of the following is not a feature of an unincorporated association?
In relation to the law of persons, ______refers to an association of workers in a particular trade, industry, or company created to secure improvements in pay, benefits, working conditions, or social and political status through collective bargaining
TRUE or FALSE: Private companies are exempted from holding a statutory meeting, while in the case of public companies, the same is mandatory.
In reference to legal persons, human beings are examples of (i).________persons, whereas companies, firms, and institutions are examples of (ii)._________persons.
TRUE or FALSE: A person can acquire nationality by subjugation or by cession.
In reference to the law of persons, (i)______refers to the legal relationship that exists between the nation and the individual, whereas (ii) _______ denotes the country that a person treats as their permanent home or lives in and has a substantial connection with.
TRUE or FALSE: Paying a widow of a deceased partner annuity by way of a portion of the profits made by the business in which the deceased was a partner creates a new partnership with the widow.
Which of the following are elements that must coexist in order to constitute a partnership?
The ability to have legal rights and duties (e.g. sue & be sued) within a certain egad system is known as:
According to the constitution of Kenya, a person can acquire citizenship in Kenya in several ways. Highlight three(3) ways of acquiring Kenyan citizenship.
TRUE or FALSE: In Kenya, citizenship can be lost through marriage or the dissolution of marriage.
In relation to the law of persons, highlight eight(8) differences between a company and a cooperative society.
The Railways company of Kenya, KPLC and Kenya Tea Development agency are examples of :
TRUE or FALSE: Under a cooperation sole, only one person may occupy the position at any point in time, whereas a corporation aggregate has multiple members at any given time.
In reference to the law of persons, a (i). ________ refers to the group of people who unite to form one body under a special denomination, whereas, a (ii). _______refers to a person who represents an official position which has a single separate legal entity, and (iii). ______ refers to a public enterprise formed by a special Act of the parliament.
The superior courts of Kenya consist of:
The Court of Appeal of Kenya is established under Article (i)_______of the constitution of Kenya and consists of several judges, being not fewer than (ii).________.
Which of the following is not true about of administrative tribunals?
TRUE or FALSE: The Environment and Land Court is a superior court that has the same status as the high court.
Which of the following disputes are not under the jurisdiction of the Industrial court in Kenya?
List four (4) classes of courts subordinate to the High Court established by the Magistrate Court.
Which of the following responsibilities is/ are not under the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of Kenya?
The Supreme Court comprises of the (i).______, who is the President of the Court, the (ii)______who is the Vice-President of the Court, and (iii)._____other Judges.
TRUE or FALSE: The Supreme Court in Kenya is established under Article 163 of the Constitution.
In reference to employment and labor relations, which of the following matters are/is not handled by the magistrates' courts under Gazette Notice No. 6024 (2018)?
Highlight six(6) types of disputes that fall under the jurisdiction of the environmental and land court in Kenya in accordance with Article 162(2)(b) of the Constitution
TRUE or FALSE: The Environment and Land Court in Kenya is a superior court that has the same status as the high court.
Outline three(3) grounds under which a judge of a superior court may be removed from office.
Highlight the powers of the Court of Appeal in Kenya.
TRUE or FALSE: In Kenya,the removal of a judge can be initiated only by the Judicial Service Commission acting on its motion or the petition of any person to the Judicial Service Commission
_______ refers to bodies established by Acts of Parliament to exercise judicial or quasi-judicial functions to supplement ordinary courts in the administration of justice.
The following are questions that might be heard by the high court under its jurisdiction to hear matters in respect of the interpretation of the constitution in Kenya. Which is/are not true?
In natural justice, Nemo Judex in causa sua means that__________.
TRUE or FALSE. An arbitration award may be reviewed by the court if the arbitrator was biased or there was fraud in the process
In reference to administration tribunals, which of the following statements is/are false?
_________is a doctrine of constitutional law under which the three branches of government (executive, legislative, and judicial) are kept separate.
In Kenya, on the petition of any person, the President may exercise the power of mercy in accordance with the advice of the Advisory Committee established under clause (2), in several ways. Highlight three(3) ways in which this may happen.
Quo warrant can be defined as:
In the application of judicial review, a (i).________refers to a writ issued by the Supreme Court or any High Court for quashing the order already passed by an inferior court, tribunal, or quasi-judicial authority, whereas a (ii). _________refers to a writ issued as a command to an inferior court or ordering a person to perform a public or statutory duty.
TRUE or FALSE: In Kenya, an arbitration clause requires the parties to resolve their disputes through an arbitration process and binds the parties to a type of resolution outside the courts.
In reference to alternative dispute resolution,(i)_________is a method of dispute resolution in which parties settle their conflict and reach an agreement through discussion, whereas (ii)_________is a method of dispute resolution in which an independent third party assists the parties to conflict in resolving their disputes.
In reference to arbitration,_________arbitration refers to when parties to a contract agree to resolve future disputes via binding arbitration rather than in court or otherwise.
TRUE or FALSE: If an arbitration award is outside the agreement, it is void, and since a void award cannot be severed from the rest of the award, the whole award is void.
Which of the following is not one of the ways disputes might be referred to arbitration?
TRUE or FALSE: In Kenya, the legislature makes the laws; the executive puts the laws into operation; and the judiciary interprets the laws.
Administrative law can be defined as:
Highlight three(3) functions of judicial review.
The two(2) rules of natural justice are:
TRUE or FALSE: Under the Bill of Rights in Kenya, the constitution outlaws abortion unless it is advised by a legally recognized medical practitioner to save the life of the mother or permitted under other circumstances like rape.
Which of the following is/are not rule(s) that govern the application for stare decisis ?
________ is a legal doctrine that obligates courts to follow historical cases when making a ruling on a similar case.
TRUE or FALSE: A Local custom need not conform with statutory law before it can be recognized by the courts in Kenya.
Under delegated legislation,(i)______ are regulations made by government departments,(ii) _______are made by county governments and local authorities, or public corporations, and (iii)________are issued by Cabinet Secretaries
__________refers to law made by an executive authority under powers given to them by primary legislation in order to implement and administer the requirements of that primary legislation.
Which of the following statements is not true about Islamic law in Kenya?
In reference to precedents, define the following terms:
i. Original precedent
ii. Declaratory precedent
iii. Binding precedent
iv. Persuasive precedent
v. Distinguishing precedent
_________refers to law as established by the outcome of former cases
TRUE or FALSE: In reference to maxims of equity, "Equity looks to form rather than intent".
Which of the following statements about using judicial precedents as a source of law is false ?.
When does a court of law declare delegated legislation substantially ultra vires?
In reference to Acts of Parliament as a source of law, which of the following statements is/are not true?
The statements a lawyer tells the jury in a criminal case to convince them of his/her client's innocence are examples of (i) _________, whereas a unanimous decision held/reached by the Supreme Court judges that secularism is one of the basic structures of the constitution of Kenya is an example of (ii)_______.
List six(6) branches of civil law.
An offense relating to a criminal act which has not, or not yet, been committed is called:
Plaintiff and defendant are the main parties in a (i).______case, whereas, prosecution and defense are the main parties in (ii) ______.
TRUE or FALSE: Legal wrongs are acts that are contrary to the rule of legal justice and violation of the law, whereas moral wrongs are acts that are contrary to the rule of natural justice.
Highlight four(4) differences between common law and equity.
___________refers to a written law produced by Parliament which originates from decisions made in other courts and the country's written constitution
Outline five(5) types of punishments that might be inflicted in the Kenyan court of criminal law.
TRUE or FALSE: While sanctions are invariably imposed for the infringement of a legal obligation, there is no official legal sanction for immoral behavior.
Highlight eight(8) characteristics of law.
In reference to criminal and civil law, which of the following statements is/are not true?
In law, remedies are concerned with the character and extent of relief to which an individual who has brought a legal action is entitled once the appropriate court procedure has been followed, and the individual has established that he or she has a substantive right that has been infringed by the defendant. ________damages are imposed upon the defendant to punish or deter her/him, rather than to compensate the plaintiff.
TRUE or FALSE: The law of torts is an example of private law.
Which of the following is not an example to public law?
The body of rules that determines the rights and obligations of individuals and collective bodies is called:
Law can be defined as:
Discuss the concept of ‘supremacy of the constitution’.
TRUE or FALSE: While sanctions are invariably imposed for the infringement of a legal obligation, there is no official sanction for immoral behavior in Kenya.
Highlight the three(3) distinct conceptions of the rule of law according to Dicey.
TRUE or FALSE: In reference to maxims of equity, ’Equity looks to form rather than intent’.
19Citing examples, highlight the factors that a court might consider when applying a judicial precedent under Kenyan Law.
List seven (7)) sources of law identified by the Judicial Act in Kenya.
Define the following classifications of Sources of law in Kenya.
i. Principal sources
ii. Subsidiary sources
The constitution creates the principal and other organs of the government. Outline three(3) bodies and offices created by the Constitution.
Which of the following is not a right guaranteed by the Constitution in Kenya?
A ________bill seeks to introduce or amend law applicable in some parts of Kenya or regulate a specific group of persons.
Outline the four (4) stages of the law-making procedure in Kenya.
Highlight three(3) advantages and disadvantages of statute law.
Explain seven(7) )freedoms guaranteed by the Bill of Rights found in the constitution of Kenya.
Highlight four(4) reasons for Parliament to delegate law-making process powers to other persons and bodies.
TRUE or FALSE: Parliament and courts of law can control delegated legislation.
Define the following tears and provide examples.
i. Substantive ultra vires
ii. Procedural ultra vires
TRUE or FALSE: Failure to comply with the rules of natural justice is that any decision or other administrative action taken is null and void and can be invalidated by the courts.
The following are rules that govern the application for stare decisis. Which is not true?
Under delegated legislation, statutory instruments are regulations made by (i)._______, by-laws are made by (ii).________ or public corporations, and legal notices are issued by (iii)._________.
A legal doctrine that obligates courts to follow historical cases when making a ruling on a similar case is called:
In reference to jurisdiction,(i).__________jurisdiction refers to the power of a court to hear a case at the first instance,(ii)._______jurisdiction refers to the power of a court to hear cases on appeal, (iii)._______--jurisdiction refers to the power of a court to hear or entertain criminal or civil cases from within a defined geographical area (judicial district), and (iv)._____jurisdiction refers to the power of a court to entertain civil cases whose value of the subject does not exceed the specified monetary value.
Outline three(3) conditions under which Puisne judges sit alone.
List the four(4)courts under the subordinate courts in Kenya.
The diagram below describes the structure and hierarchy of the court system in Kenya. Fill in the courts represented by letters A, B, C, and D.
Highlight five(5) sentences that the court-martial has the power to impose.
Highlight three (3) ways by which an incorporated association may be brought into existence.
Highlight five(5) differences between natural persons and artificial persons.
Highlight three (3) classifications of companies according to the liability of members.
TRUE or FALSE: In a public company, shares may be transferred only by the consent of all members.
In reference to trade unions, which of the following statements is/are true?
Outline eight(8) rules of tort.
Outline the elements of a contract that may make an agreement agreeable.
Highlight six(6) exceptions to the privity principle.
Highlight three(3) sources of the law of contract under section 2(1) of the Law of Contract Act, Cap. 23.
Outline six(6) elements of a valid contract.
When does the risk transfer from buyer to seller under the Cost, Insurance, and Freight (CIF) agreement?
In relation to international contracts of sale, explain the free-on-board (FOB) contract.
TRUE or FALSE: Under Free alongside ship (FAS) contracts, the seller is responsible for ensuring that the goods are cleared for export, while the buyer is responsible for the costs of reloading goods, ocean transportation, and insurance.
Outline three(3) conditions under which goods delivered to the buyer by approval or on sale or return or such other term, pass to the buyer (sec.20 of the Act).
An agency is created when:
Outline four(4) ways by which an agency may be terminated.
Outline six(6) ways through which an agency is terminated by operation of law.
TRUE or FALSE: A special agent is employed to do all acts connected with a particular employment.
An agent who sells goods in his possession and under his control on behalf of his principal is called:
Advocates and insurance agents are examples of:
Highlight five(5) similarities and eight(8)differences between an agency and a trust.
In the hire purchase agreement, there is an implied condition that the goods are of merchantable quality. Highlight three(3) conditions when this does not apply.
___________ legislation refers to law made by an executive authority under powers given to them by primary legislation to implement and administer the requirements of that primary legislation.
TRUE or FALSE: If goods are recovered from a hirer after he/she has paid two-thirds of the price before the termination of the hire purchase agreement, the hirer is released from liability and can recover from the owner by suit all sums paid by him/her.
In reference to sources of law, highlight six(6) circumstances under which a court could refrain from applying a binding precedent.
Distinguish a credit sale from a conditional sale.
Highlight five(5) duties of good faith under the Partnership Act (Kenya).
TRUE or FALSE: Under the Partnership Act No.10 of 2012 (Kenya), a partnership cannot employ a partner as an employee of the firm.
In reference to Partnerships, which of the following statements is not true?
TRUE or FALSE: A person who is admitted as a partner into an existing firm is liable to the creditors of the firm for anything done before he became a partner.
Outline five(5) conditions under which a person can cease to be a partner in a partnership.
TRUE or FALSE: A majority of partners in a partnership may expel a partner if the whole or a part of the partner's shares in the partnership is subject to an attachment in execution in respect of a debt that is not partnership debt.
In reference to the Partnership Act, which of the following statements is not true?
Outline eight(8) contents of a partnership deed.
Highlight three(3) liabilities of a minor partner.
Which of the following statements is not true?
Outline two(2) ways of partnership dissolution by expiry or notice.
TRUE or FALSE: When a person deals with a firm after a change in its constitution, he/she is entitled to treat all apparent members of the old firm as still members of the firm until he has notice of the change.
Which of the following statements are/is true?
Outline two(2) conditions under which a partner cannot recover the premium paid when a partnership is prematurely dissolved.
Highlight six(6) rights of a partner where a partnership is dissolved for fraud or misrepresentation of one of the parties.
Highlight the order applicable to the distribution of assets of the firm (including any sums) on payment of debts on the dissolution of a partnership.
TRUE or FALSE: When distributing settling accounts between partners after the dissolution of a partnership, losses, including losses and deficiencies of capital, shall be paid first out of capital, next out of profits, and lastly, if necessary, by the partners individually in the proportion in which they were entitled to share profits.
Highlight seven(7) disadvantages of a limited liability partnership (LLP).
In reference to limited liability partnership(LLP), which of the following statements is/are true?
Highlight six(6) differences between an LLP from an LLC.
Highlight the six(6) types of guarantees and give an example of each.
TRUE or FALSE: For a deed of guarantee and indemnity to be enforceable, it must be in writing and signed by a guarantor or a person duly authorized by the guarantor.
TRUE or FALSE: Where there are multiple guarantors, their liability is normally joint, and all who have signed the guarantee may be pursued for payment of the debt in the event of a default by a company.
Define the following terms and give an example of each.
i. The express contract of indemnity
ii. The implied contract of indemnity
Which of the following is not an example of indemnity?
Define the following terms
i. Prospective guarantee
ii. Retrospective guarantee
Outline two(2) circumstances under which a guarantee can be revoked.
In reference to guarantees in business, (i) __________implies that goods are delivered for no payment but with an agreement (written or oral) that may include any security against payment discharge at a later date, whereas under(ii)._________, the surety pays the amount specified in the contract if the person to whom the guarantee is given fails to discharge the contract.
__________guarantee assures the final customer that the purchased good or service sold to them meets certain quality and durability standards.
TRUE or FALSE: A person can purchase life insurance for himself/herself.
List seven (7) basic principles applicable to insurance contracts.
Mark has a policy with ABC Insurance Company that covers USD 50,000 in property damage, and another policy with DEF Insurance Company that covers USD 75,000 in property damage. A fire damaged USD 60,000 worth of property. How much will Makao claim for insurance?
Luka has found a duly signed and dated document in his pocket addressed to Sila by Stephano in the following form: “I undertake to pay you on demand or order the sum of USD 50,000 for value received’’. Luka has approached you to assist him in understanding the nature of the document.
i. Identify the name of the document
ii. Outline five(5) characteristics of the document above.
In reference to bills of exchange, a (i)________refers to the payee of the negotiable instrument, who is in possession of it and is entitled to receive or recover the amount due on the instrument from the parties thereto, whereas a (ii)________implies a person who obtains the instrument bonafide for consideration before maturity, without any knowledge of defect in the title of the person transferring the instrument.
Highlight six(6) characteristics of negotiable instruments.
In reference to bills of exchange, which of the following statements is not true?
Under the Land Act,2012 (Kenya), the land is classified into:
TRUE or FALSE: In Kenya, freehold land and leasehold land over 99 years cannot be held by a non-Kenyan citizen.
In reference to the Land Act 2012 in Kenya, highlight ten(10) components of public land.
When does an infringement of copyright occur?
List five (5) rights that a copyright owner authorizes or prohibits.
A right of way (ROW) over the land of another is referred to as (i)_______, whereas a right amounting to an interest allowing for restriction of another’s land is referred to as (ii)_______.
In reference to the law of property, define the term easement and outline four(4) conditions that a valid easement must satisfy.
Highlight four(4) ways in which an easement can be created.
TRUE or FALSE: A freehold title deed generally has no restriction as to the use or occupation.
The property owner has the right to receive compensation for a trespass that occurs on their land. Outline five(5) damages that the property owner can be compensated for.
Highlight four(4) defenses in an action for trespass to land.
Define the following terms.
i. An easement appurtenant
ii. An easement in gross
In relation to servitudes on land, highlight six(6) differences between easements and licenses.
Distinguish between real property and personal property.
Explain the meaning of the following terms:
i. Copyright infringement
ii. Simple Mortgage
iii. Foreclosure
iv. Mortgage by conditional sale
Mathayo wishes to lease out his business premises to Ally. Advise Moses on five(5) implied terms on the part of the lessee.
List the four(4) unities of a joint tenancy.
Highlight eight(8) ways in which leases might be terminated.
In relation to the law of property, distinguish between choces in action and choces in possession.
TRUE or FALSE: Under the Land Registration Act, a spouse will acquire an interest in his/her spouse’s land if the spouse contributes by labor or other means to the productivity, upkeep, and improvement of the land.
List the four(4) main alternative dispute resolution (ADR) methods in Kenya.
TRUE or FALSE: There is no mandatory requirement for parties to commercial litigation to submit to alternative dispute resolution (ADR) proceedings.
Highlight six(6) disadvantages of arbitration as an alternative dispute resolution mechanism.
Which of the following statements about ADR is not true?
Highlight four(4) circumstances under which the appointment of an arbitrator may be challenged.
There are different methods of arbitration. In (i)________, two parties in a conflict or dispute (fight) reach a settlement between themselves that they both agree on, in (ii)_____, a neutral third party assists the parties in conflict to resolve, whereas in (iii) ______, a third party hears the case as presented by the parties in conflict or dispute (fight) and makes a decision or award in the same way as a Judge would.
Which of the following statements about the appointment of arbitrators is/are true?
In reference to alternative dispute resolution (ADR),________ refers to a process where an independent third party helps people in a dispute to identify the disputed issues, develop options, consider alternatives, and try to reach an agreement.
TRUE or FALSE: Conciliation is legally binding on the parties.
Highlight four(4) advantages of mediation
With respect to resolving commercial disputes, highlight six(6) advantages and disadvantages of negotiation.
TRUE or FALSE: In negotiations, the parties must take part in the process and abide by the conclusion of the negotiations.
Outline four(4) types of negotiations.
Highlight five(5) advantages of alternative dispute resolution.
TRUE or FALSE: Criminal matters fall outside the scope of an arbitration tribunal as they are considered to be matters of public policy.
Which of the following statements is not true about Acts of parliament as a source of law?
TRUE or FALSE: Case law makes the legal system uncertain and unpredictable.
In reference to arbitration agreements, which of the following statements is true?
TRUE or FALSE: Arbitration agreements are treated as separate from the underlying contract and survive the contract's termination.
List the two(2) main bodies that offer alternative dispute resolution(ADR) in Kenya.
Define professional ethics.
TRUE or FALSE: People in a particular group use the same professional ethics, even though their values may be unique to each person.
Outline eight(8) benefits of a professional code of conduct.
TRUE or FALSE: Ethical principles differ from profession to profession.
The International Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants (ICEPA) sets out the fundamental principles for professional accountants. Outline five(5) fundamental principles that establish the behavior of professional accounts.
Highlight five(5) principles of professional competence and due care required of accountants.
Ethics in advertising is a set of well-defined principles that govern the ways of communication that take place between the seller and the buyer. An advertisement is ethical if:
Highlight five(5) ethical issues faced by advertisers.
Outline five (5) principles of ethical advertising that an advertising firm should adhere to.
Highlight the differences between law and ethics.
The guiding principles that help individuals or groups decide what is good or bad are called (i)._____, whereas beliefs of an individual or a group as to what is right or wrong is called (ii)_____.
TRUE or FALSE: A code of ethics clarifies the acceptable standards of behavior for a professional group.
Outline two(2) disadvantages of the code of ethics.
Define the following types of fraud.
i. Copyright infringement
ii. Click fraud
iii. Advance fee fraud
The protection given to songs, computer programs, books, and other creative works; any work that has an “author” can be copyrighted is called:
TRUE or FALSE: A mere listing of ingredients is not protected under copyright law.
To qualify as a trade secret, information must be:
TRUE or FALSE: In reference to copyright law, fair use allows for the use of protected works without prior authorization in specific cases.
Outline four(4) circumstances under which a public officer is allowed to receive a gift.
Highlight three (3) technology trends that raise ethical issues.
The concept of “supremacy of the constitution” means that:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of law?
The ________ law refers to a written law produced by Parliament that originates from decisions made in other courts and the country’s written constitution
Which of the following is not a type of punishment recognized in Kenyan criminal law?
Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between common law and equity?
Plaintiff and defendant are the main parties in a (i) ______ case, whereas prosecution and defense are the main parties in a (ii) ______ case.
Which of the following is not a branch of civil law?
Which of the following factors may a court consider when applying judicial precedent?
According to A.V. Dicey, the rule of law includes all of the following except:
Which of the following lists correctly represents the sources of law identified by the Judicature Act in Kenya?
Principal sources of law refer to:
Subsidiary sources of law refer to:
The Constitution of Kenya creates principal and other organs of government, including:
The _______ refers to law as established by the outcome of former cases.
A _______ bill seeks to introduce or amend law applicable in some parts of Kenya or regulate a specific group of persons.
Which of the following correctly represents the stages of law-making in Kenya?
Under delegated legislation:
(i) ______ are regulations made by government departments,
(ii) ______ are made by county governments or public corporations, and
(iii) ______ are issued by Cabinet Secretaries.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of statute law?
Which of the following is not a freedom guaranteed by the Bill of Rights in Kenya?
The _______ is a legal doctrine that obligates courts to follow historical cases when making rulings on similar cases.
A court may declare delegated legislation substantially ultra vires when:
Which of the following is not a reason Parliament delegates law-making powers?
The _________ is a doctrine of constitutional law under which the three branches of government (executive, legislative, and judicial) are kept separate.
Which of the following is not a function of judicial review?
The _________ arbitration refers to when parties to a contract agree to resolve future disputes via binding arbitration rather than in court or otherwise.
In Kenya, on the petition of any person, the President may exercise the power of mercy in accordance with the advice of the Advisory Committee. Which of the following is not a way this may occur?
Substantive ultra vires refers to:
Procedural ultra vires refers to:
Under delegated legislation:
(i) Statutory instruments are regulations made by _______
(ii) By-laws are made by _______ or public corporations
(iii) Legal notices are issued by _______
In reference to jurisdiction, _______ jurisdiction refers to the power of a court to hear a case at the first instance.
In reference to jurisdiction _______ jurisdiction refers to the power of a court to hear cases on appeal.
In reference _______ jurisdiction refers to the power of a court to hear criminal or civil cases from within a defined geographical area.
_______ jurisdiction refers to the power of a court to entertain civil cases whose value does not exceed a specified monetary value.
Which of the following is not a ground for removal of a judge of a superior court?
Which of the following is not a power of the Court of Appeal?
Puisne judges may sit alone under which of the following conditions?
The Supreme Court comprises: (i) ______, who is the President of the Court, ______, who is the Vice-President of the Court, and (iii). ______ other judges
Which of the following is not a subordinate court in Kenya?
Which of the following is not a sentence the Court Martial may impose?
The Court of Appeal of Kenya is established under Article _______ of the Constitution and consists of not fewer than _______ judges.
Which of the following is not a class of courts subordinate to the High Court?
In reference to the law of persons,_______ refers to a group of people who unite to form one body under a special denomination.
_______ refers to a person who represents an official position which has a single separate legal entity.
_______ refers to a public enterprise formed by a special Act of Parliament.
The ability to have legal rights and duties (e.g., to sue and be sued) within a certain legal system is known as
Which of the following is not a way to acquire Kenyan citizenship under the Constitution?
Which of the following is not a method by which an incorporated association may be brought into existence?
In reference to the law of persons, (i) _______ refers to the legal relationship between the nation and the individual, and (ii) _______ denotes the country a person treats as their permanent home.
Human beings are examples of (i) _______ persons, whereas companies, firms, and institutions are examples of (ii) _______ persons.
A document that outlines in detail the rights and responsibilities of all parties to a business operation is known as:
Which of the following is not a difference between natural and artificial persons?
Which of the following is not a classification of companies by members’ liability?
Tort law deals with civil suits, except for disputes involving:
Which of the following is not a difference between tort and contract?
Mercy wants to sue Juma under private nuisance. Which of the following is not an issue she must prove?
Which of the following is not an essential that Luka must prove in a negligence claim?
________ occurs when a person uses or alters a piece of personal property belonging to someone else without the owner's consent.
Which of the following is not a general rule of tort law?
A contract is (i) ______ when all of the elements essential to forming a legal contract are present, whereas (ii) ______ contract can be enforced in a court of law.
An (i) ______ contract refers to a contract where proposal and acceptance are expressed non-verbally, whereas an (ii) ______ contract is one in which proposal and acceptance are expressed verbally.
Which of the following best describes the difference between a condition and a warranty?
Any legal interest in premises that is not terminable at the will of the landlord or at the time the tenant takes possession is referred to as:
The phrase (i) ______ means let the buyer beware, whereas (ii) ______ means seller beware.
For consideration to be valid, it must be:
The doctrine of ________ of contract prevents a person who is not a party from enforcing a term of that contract.
Which of the following is NOT an element of a valid contract?
(i) ______ privity arises when benefits in a contract are given to another party not part of the original contract, whereas (ii) ______ privity may be raised when another contract arises from one of the parties.
Which of the following is NOT an exception to the privity of contract principle?
Under Section 2(1) of the Law of Contract Act (Cap 23), the sources of contract law include:
In contract law, ______ means there has been a “meeting of the minds” where all parties understand and accept the terms.
Which of the following correctly lists the six elements of a valid contract?
In a sale of goods, “quid pro quo” describes:
Fahari sold goods to Salome for USD 20,000, but her cheque was dishonored by the bank. Salome is a:
Since the cheque was dishonored, Fahari remains an unpaid seller under the Sale of Goods Act.
A contract of sale of goods is void under the Sale of Goods Act when:
Which of the following correctly states a difference between a sale and an agreement to sell?
Which of the following is a rule for ascertaining the intention of the parties as to when property in goods passes to the buyer?
According to the Sale of Goods Act, transit ends when:
Transit ends when the buyer or agent takes delivery before arrival or when goods reach the buyer’s possession.
In relation to international contracts of sale, a Free on Board (FOB) contract means:
Under Section 20 of the Sale of Goods Act, goods delivered on approval or sale or return basis pass to the buyer when:
An agency by ratification is also known as:
Which of the following is not a rule of ratification?
A fiduciary is:
Agency by necessity occurs when:
Which of the following is not a duty of an agent to the principal?
The _________ stipulates that when a contract is required by law to be in writing, the authority of an agent to enter into such a contract on behalf of the principal must also be in writing.
Which of the following is not a circumstance where an agent may be personally liable?
________ authority occurs when an agent exceeds the scope of their express or apparent authority but it can be implied by a third party that the agent has that authority.
______ agency refers to the relationship where the agent acts as a broker and guarantees credit extended to the buyer.
Which of the following is not a way to terminate an agency?
Which of the following does not terminate an agency by operation of law?
Advocates and insurance agents are examples of:
Which of the following is not a similarity between agency and trust?
The deal in which one party can use the asset of the other party for the payment of equal monthly installments is known as (i) _______, whereas an agreement where one party buys the asset and allows the other party to use it by paying consideration over a specified period is known as (ii) _______.
Which of the following is not a way a hirer may terminate a hire purchase agreement under CAP.507?
Which of the following is not an implied term in every hire purchase agreement?
The implied condition that goods are of merchantable quality does not apply when:
(i) ______ bailment is when the bailor transfers property to bailee without compensation.
______ bailment is when bailor does something for bailee and expects return/payment
___________ legislation refers to law made by an executive authority under powers given by primary legislation.
Tabora Ltd purchased a machine on hire purchase: Cash price = USD 350,000, Down payment = USD 200,000, 4 annual installments USD 100,000 each, Interest 5% per annum. The Hire Purchase Price was (i).__________and the Total Interest Paid was (ii)._________.
A court may refrain from applying binding precedent in all except:
Which of the following is not true?
Which of the following is not a duty of good faith among partners?
Which of the following is not a condition under which a person ceases to be a partner?
Which of the following is not usually included in a partnership deed?
Which of the following is not a liability of a minor partner?
Which of the following is not a way of dissolving a partnership by expiry or notice?
A partner cannot recover the premium paid when a partnership is prematurely dissolved if:
Which of the following is not a right of a partner when partnership is dissolved for fraud/misrepresentation?
Which of the following is the correct order of asset distribution?
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of a Limited Liability Partnership(LLP)?
Which of the following is not a difference between a Limited Liability Partnership(LLP) and a Limited Liability Company (LLC)?
________ refers to a contract to perform the promise or discharge the liability of the defaulting party in case he/she fails to fulfill his promise.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a contract of guarantee?
Hassan advanced a loan of USD 50,000 to Halima. Juma, Halima’s boss, promised to pay if Halima defaults.
Who is:
(i) Creditor?
(ii) Principal debtor?
(iii) Guarantor?
An (i) ______ guarantee refers to a guarantee given for a single debt or specific transaction, ending when debt is paid, whereas (ii) ______ guarantee extends to a series of transactions.
Which of the following is not a right of a guarantor?
The two main types of guarantee are:
Elijah loses his share certificate. The company issues a duplicate, requiring him to compensate for loss if original is used by a third party. This is an example of:
Which of the following is not correct?
Which of the following is correct?
A guarantee can be revoked under all except:
The __________ is the Government agency established under the Insurance Act, Cap.487 with a mandate to regulate, supervise, and develop the insurance sector in Kenya.
Under the principle of _______, the total payment for actual loss is proportionally divided among all insurance companies.
Which of the following is not an insurable risk?
A creditor has an insurable interest in the life of a:
Life (i) ______insurance is designed to cover the policyholder for a specific term, while life (ii) ______ insurance usually covers the policyholder for their entire life.
Which of the following is not a condition for applying the principle of contribution?
In the insurance industry, an __________ contract requires the highest standard of good faith during disclosure of all material facts.
Which of the following is not a principle of insurance contracts?
Makao has a policy with ABC Insurance (USD 50,000) and DEF Insurance (USD 75,000). Fire damage = USD 60,000. How much will Makao claim?
Which of the following is not an example of a negotiable instrument?
Which of the following is not a distinction between a bill of exchange and a cheque?
Luka found a document signed by Stephano promising to pay Sila USD 50,000 “on demand or order for value received”. Identify the name of the document:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a promissory note?
Which of the following is not a requirement for negotiability?
Bills of lading, Post Office orders, money orders, registered share certificates, IOUs, dock warrants, delivery orders, etc., are examples of:
In bills of exchange, a (i) ______ refers to the payee of the instrument, while a (ii) ______ is a person who obtains the instrument bona fide for consideration before maturity.
Which of the following is not a requirement for a valid acceptance for honor supra protest?
Which of the following is not a characteristic of negotiable instruments?
Under the Land Act, 2012(Kenya) land is classified into:
Which of the following is not a component of public land?
When does an infringement of copyright occur?
Which of the following is not a right of a copyright owner?
A right of way (ROW) over another’s land is referred to as (i) ______, whereas a right restricting another’s land is referred to as (ii) ______.
Which of the following is not a condition for a valid easement?
Which of the following is not a way to create an easement?
Which of the following is not compensable in trespass?
Which of the following is not a defense?
Which of the following is not a correct definition?
Which of the following is not a difference?
Which of the following is not an example of real property?
Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Which of the following is not an implied term?
Which of the following is not a unity?
Which of the following is not a method of termination?
Which of the following is not a chose in action?
Which of the following is not a main ADR method?
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of arbitration?
Which of the following cannot be used to challenge an arbitrator?
In arbitration:
i. Parties reach settlement themselves through (i) ______
ii. Neutral third party assists in (ii) ______
iii. Third party hears case and makes binding decision through (iii) ______
In reference to ADR, ________ refers to a process where an independent third party helps people identify disputed issues, develop options, consider alternatives, and try to reach an agreement.
Which of the following is not an advantage of mediation?
Which of the following is not a disadvantage of negotiation?
Which of the following is not a recognized type of negotiation?
Which of the following is not an advantage of ADR?
Which of the following are the two main ADR bodies in Kenya?
Professional ethics refers to:
Which of the following is not a benefit of a professional code of conduct?
Which of the following is not one of the fundamental principles of professional accountants under ICEPA?
Which of the following is not a principle?
An advertisement is ethical if:
Which of the following is not an ethical issue?
Which of the following is not a principle?
Which of the following is not a correct distinction?
The guiding principles that help individuals or groups decide what is good or bad are called (i) _______, whereas beliefs of an individual or a group as to what is right or wrong is called (ii) ______.
Which of the following is not a disadvantage?
Which of the following is not a type of fraud?
Which of the following cannot justify a public officer receiving a gift?
Which of the following is not a technology trend raising ethical concerns?
Which of the following is not a basic principle of corporate governance?
Which of the following is not a reason why good corporate governance is important?
Which of the following is not a correct classification of stakeholders?
Which of the following is not an effective corporate governance practice?
Which of the following is not a role of stakeholders?
A conflict of interest occurs when:
Which of the following is not a type of individual interest that may cause conflict?
Which of the following is not a conflict of interest among board members?
Which of the following is not a form of conflict among accounting firms?
Which of the following does not need to be addressed in a corporate governance framework?
Which of the following is not a difference between corporate governance and compliance?
The objective of a legal audit is to:
Which of the following is not an advantage of legal audit?
Which of the following is not a trend putting pressure on corporate governance?